Math question re RFE

obliviusoblivius San FranciscoRed Chipper Posts: 23 ✭✭
Here's a hand ex from the Grinder's manual. I'm stuck on it because I think there's a typo, OR, my brain is fried... If anyone can clear it up that'd be great... It only PRE-flop in duration
THE HAND: (the cards don't even matter) *only hero plus villain play
Hero UTG dealt :As :Qd opens to 3bb
Villain in SB 3bets to 10bb
The lesson is a few paragraphs but here's the meat..taken from the book (Hand ex #94)

IF needed, R=Risk, PG=Potential Gain

"In a vacuum we need Villain to fold R / (R + PG) = 19 / (19 + 13.5) = 58% for 4-betting to be automatically profitable."

Dude suggests Hero 4bet to 22bb which will create the above equation rendering 58% break-even required fold equity

before 4bet pot is 13.5bb <should be 14bb imo, 4.5 + 9.5 but whatever>

IF Hero 4bets to 22bb (19bb more) than our open, how is V's Risk 19bb ?
V has already committed his 10bb so that's dead money (isn't it?)
IF he flats he puts in another 9bb and if he folds the 10bb is gone...

I get that H is raising approx 1.5x pot which is creates 60% RFE so the math checks out... Maybe that's allI need to understand... Is it as simple as getting V to NOT call 9 more bb if he's 4betting a polar range and to get him to fold out that 1.5:1 ratio of bluff to value 3bets??
**Thanks in advance if anyone tackles this**

Comments

  • EazzyEazzy Red Chipper Posts: 887 ✭✭✭
    edited October 9
    his option for the formula is not call or raise, its raise or fold.....
    thus for him to go to 22 19 more, the fact that he calls 10 first does not matter, he is risking the entire 19 not 9 more because if he folds he losses 0 more, but if he 4 bets to 22 he has to put up another 19.

    as for the 13.5 v.s the 14, hero bets 3 sb makes it 10 and bb has 1 in the pot
    thats 10 + 3 + 1 or 14...but I'm assuming he may be taking the rake out...
  • obliviusoblivius San FranciscoRed Chipper Posts: 23 ✭✭
    OK>.. I just read through it again and I see it clearly... I was thinking backwards as if Villain was somehow risking the 19bb and it's plain as freaking day... It's hero's risk making the the RFE higher or lower. I guess i was thinking beyond the 4bet... thx

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