Calling raises has a clearly defined optimal range-True or False?
I find this statement to be true but was wrong in the quiz. I would surely have an optimal range for calling??? For example, I would call KQ suited but 3bet KQo. Can someone enlighten me, please? way too confused here????
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Best Answers
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LeChiffre NetherlandsRed Chipper Posts: 657 ✭✭✭
Of course at any point in the game theoretically speaking there exists an optimal play with respect to your opponent's range and behaviour.
The problem is that it is not clearly defined. At all. -
Doug Hull RCP Coach Posts: 1,876 -
While an absolute, correct GTO answer exists, we don't know what it is. -
Npchapman Red Chipper Posts: 5 ✭✭
Yes, thank you. That does make sense. I guess it keeps the whole thing creative!
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