Confused by an example in the 1% book

HerfHerf Red Chipper Posts: 5 ✭✭
I think I'm missing something in one example from Ed Miller's outstanding 1% book.

I believe it's ok to quote from the book for purposes of discussion/review. If it is not, then admins please remove this post.

My question actually has nothing to do with the point of this example. I actually understand the point quite well, it's just that I get distracted by these things. LOL!

From the book (lightly edited)—

A live 2-5 NL game with $1000 stacks.

You open to $20, get a call behind you and a nit (who refuses to go all-in without the nuts) calls in the big blind.

The flop is Qh Td 4d

You bet $40 the player behind folds and the nit calls.

To make the two calls the nit's strong range is probably something like:
QQ-TT, 44

The turn is 4s. He checks and you bet $100. Which hands will he fold? It could be as many as these:

ATs, KQs, QJs, AdXd (not Ad3d), 9d8d-8d7d

This has him folding any hand weaker than AQ and any draw weaker than a combo straight and flush draw.

He's continuing with:



My question is...why is he folding 9d8d-8d7d and not 7d6d-6d5d? Aren't they essentially equal?

Similarly, why he is he keeping Ad3d and not say Ad9d, AdJd or AdKd?

He says that the guy wants only combo straight and flush draws. But how is having 4d-5d-6d and 4d-6d-7d better than having 8d-9d-Td and 7d-8d-Td?


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