# AK Vs AA

Red Chipper Posts: 34
Is this Ok this hand q pre and post flop?
AK

## Comments

• RCP Coach Posts: 1,867 -
Please clarify your question.

What was you reasoning on the turn and river?
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• Red Chipper Posts: 34
Well sometimes, you dose and luck, or skill not only happens if there is no luck
I had amazing implied odds, so I decided to go and see the river, and then came the damn jack and everything developed in notes ))))
• Red Chipper Posts: 595 ✭✭
Implied odds, not really, immediate odds, yea you had good immediate odds but vs what range are we assuming villain does this with? Another thing the sizing. Preflop its a bit too small and it really accomplish nothing IMO. We have no fold equity for the times we are bluffing and we aren't setting ourselves up to get the max value if we have value. Then the small donk on the flop, once again accomplishes nothing really IMO, and given the board texture we can safetly assume we are betting to fold out hands. Well what exactly folds to that sizing? Lastly, once you make up your mind to bet flop for whatever reason, why aren't we betting that turn? If you do decide that the Q on the turn favors your villain range and you decide to check, facing that small of a sizing how often are we good and how often do we need to be good (Pot odds) to make this profitable? <- Without an idea of how well you are doing, it hurts your overall decision making even if amazing pot odds are presented.
-Rello

"Its better to give than to receive, so bet more and call less"
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• Red Chipper Posts: 34
Hand odds is right here regulars opponent is very tight, put it the following range of QQ +
• Red Chipper Posts: 595 ✭✭
Ok first thing first... Did we put villain on QQ+ before the flop bet or after? Next thing is okay we know our odds but how does our how look in equity vs his range to the pot odds? What i mean here is take a look at this quick equity calculation i ran for you:

(First i am a percentage type of guy so excuse the math conversion and i hope i don't make it confusing)

But villain is betting a tad less than half pot, for quick mathematic purpose half pot is roughly 3:1 pot odds or in my terms 25%. Now im going to turn into a mathematic geek for a minute so we could come to a solid answer, so please bare with me. Like i said before im a percentage guy so of course I'll have the formula to turn ratio to percentage, but more importantly the reason i do this is because that percentage represents how often we need to be good to make calls. Thats the purpose of pot odds right? So how do we determine how often we need to be good? By realizing our equity. So here is the situation our Equity is as you can see from equilab on this board is really low here with 11% vs his range. So now without implied odds we need to be good here about 25%. Math is below:

3:1 = 25% Equity (You can check this out from your PT4 Database or HEM2 Database in any hand where someone bets half pot)

The math is as follows:

If I bet \$2 into \$4, then
2/(4+(2*2))=25%

So 1.90 into 4.24 is,
1.90/(4.24+(1.90*2)) = 24%

What about implied odds of the entire effective stack?

4.24+3.21 = \$7.45

So \$1.90 into \$7.45 is,
1.90/(7.45+(1.90*2)) = 17%

So even with implied odds you need to be good 17% of the time. We are only good 11% here as indicated by Equilab. Very important to grasp this aspect of the game.

-Rello

"Its better to give than to receive, so bet more and call less"
Check out my HUSNG Graph: Chips-Results
Follow All the Action On My Blog: www.rello242.blogspot.com
• Red Chipper Posts: 34
It is clear that if we were guided only by the pot odds (or if our opponent had x-ray eyes and could see us cards and would not pay a dime if you fall jack), we should fold since we have pot odds of 1 to 6 in probability 1 to 11. But it is clear that if you fall off a jack, our opponent will hardly believe that we have a straight and will incorporate significant bet, because we paid him on the flop. It is almost certain that after his re-reyznem beta on the turn with an All-In, he will pay. Simply, if AA or AK in hand, and the world champion would have paid. Therefore, our call of \$ 4 on the flop, he is one of the twelve cases will win \$ 100 dollars of our opponent plus \$ 10 already paid before the flop, or a total of \$ 110. These are the implied odds of 4 to 1 or 110 to 1 probability at 27.5 to 11! And we should pay;
• Red Chipper Posts: 34
The account is as follows. 100 such tricks we 80 lose \$ 1 and earn \$ 20 5 Therefore, we call on the turn brings us a \$ 20 profit. Thus implied odds become one fold (if we were guided only by pot odds, but at the time) in a call.

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