going from pot odds to to breakeven eq %

star681star681 Red Chipper Posts: 12 ✭✭
edited July 17 in General Concepts
this is something I see from an off site video

" 115 to call, with 316 in pot. 316:115 = 2.75:1 = 26.7% eq to breakeven"


I understand the pot odds are 2.75:1 but how did they get 26.7 eq to break even? Thank you

also in the screenshot:
p1= Ac8C 29.803%
p2=TT+, AKs, AKo 70.197%

p1= Ac8C 36.563%
p2= TT+, AQs+, 98s,78s,76s,AKo 63.437%

I understand as player 2's range widens our equity in the same hand goes up, but how do they get the 26.7% breakeven number. what variables do you need and what do u do with them.

is it like 3/1 33% if u win 1 in 3 times basically to break even roughly, but they are doing it exact at 26.7?.

Comments

  • NinjahNinjah Red Chipper Posts: 789 ✭✭✭
    Risk/(risk+reward) is the formula used to calculate break even percentage and that's how they got the number. 115/(115+316)= 26.7%
  • star681star681 Red Chipper Posts: 12 ✭✭
    oohhhhhhhhhh!!!!! ok. THANK YOU! so this one is "exact" "absolute" based on math. but can u use the same formula for if you "think" a bluff will work?
  • jeffncjeffnc Red Chipper Posts: 3,170 ✭✭✭✭
    star681 wrote: »
    is it like 3/1 33% if u win 1 in 3 times basically to break even roughly, but they are doing it exact at 26.7?.

    Nooooo. 3:1 is not 33%. Odds expressed this way are fundamentally different from percentages.

    Percentages and fractions are two forms of the same thing. For example if something happens 1 out of 4 times, the chance is 1/4 and 25%.

    That's not what odds are telling you. If the odds against something happening are 4:1, that means it does not happen 4 times, and does happen 1 time. In other words, it happens 1 time out of 5, or 1/5, or 20%.

    The reason we use odds is that it's so easy to compare with our risk:reward when betting. If there is $100 in the pot and someone bets $100, then there's $200 to win and $100 to call. The pot odds are exactly $200:$100 or 2:1. That relates directly to the fact that if the odds of you winning are 2:1, then it's a break even call. You will lose twice for each time you win, or you will win 1/3.

    It's easy to convert between the two. As you can see, 2:1 odds relates to 1/3 times. So just add 1 to the fraction version. 1:1 odds = 1/2 chance = 50%. 2:1 odds = 1/3 chance = 33%. 3:1 odds = 1/4 chance = 25%. etc.

  • jeffncjeffnc Red Chipper Posts: 3,170 ✭✭✭✭
    star681 wrote: »
    but can u use the same formula for if you "think" a bluff will work?

    Yes of course, you just have to do the exact same conversions.

    If your opponent bets $100 into a $100 pot on the river, then you can win $200 by paying $100. That's 2:1 odds. As you just learned, that means you have to win at least 1 for every 2 you lose. In other words, you need to win at least 1 out of 3. 1/3 = 33%. As long as you think your opponent is bluffing more than 33% of the time, you can call with your weak hand.

  • star681star681 Red Chipper Posts: 12 ✭✭
    Thank you for your response